1. Post-Hysterectomy
Diagnosis Of Leiomyosarcoma
2. TORCH test
3. GDM
4. Positive For HBS Ag
5. 24 Wks Pregnancy With
Sudden Rise In BP 160/100
6. Hydatidiform Mole
Coexisting With Fetus
7. False +Ve Pregnancy
Test
8. Condylomata Acuminata
9. Very Interesting
Prescription
10. Difficulties In
Prescribing Calcium
11. 2nd Trimester Was
Given Anti Rabies Vaccine For Dog Bite
12. Genital Herpes When
She Was 8week Pregnant
13. PIH 150/110. BP Kept
Rising Postoperatively
14. Mirena Be Inserted In
Female 54 Years Old On Oral Hypoglycemic Agents
15. Hyperhemocystenemia
16. Significant
Retroplacental Hemorrhage
17. Clomiphene Verses
En-Clomiphene
18. Spinabifida With
Meningocoele With Ventriculomegaly Second Trimester Abortion
In A Subject With Previous Two LSCS
19. Recurrent Blighted
Ovum
20. Anterior Vaginal Wall
Cyst
21. Primi With Floating
Head Not Given A Trial For Normal Labor
22. Galactorrhea In
Otherwise Normal Pregnancy
23. HPV Vaccine
24. Using An IUCD For The
Last 16 Years
25. Refractory RPL
26. Blocked fallopian
tubes at the cornual ends
27. USG 10 days before
shows a 6.3 week with 96 heartbeats per minute
28. Refractory
Dysfunctional Uterine Bleeding
29. Prophylactic
Cercalage
30. 10 Wks Live Preg With
Partial Mole
31. Opinion Regarding Bed
Rest
32. The Rational Of
Giving Heparin Injection
33. Tranexamic Acid Be
Used In Cases Of Threatened Miscarriage
34. Tuberculin Test
Positive In Infertility
35. Methotrexate In
Placenta Accreta
36. Paternal Lymphocyte
Therapy
37. Atorvastatin In
Endometriosis
38. LMWH or Standard
Heparin
39. Possible Reason Of
Cardiac Arrest
40. Taken I-pill and
conceived in same cycle.
Q. 50 years old patient
is subjected for TAH+BSO for big fibroid, mobile.(20 weeks
pregnancy size).Histopathology report - degenerating
fibroid, with occasional sarcomatous cells10-12 in number
with hyperchromatic nuclei.------Any further management
required?
A. As regards your query on a post-hysterectomy diagnosis of
Leiomyosarcoma, different schools of thought but considering
incomplete staging surgery in this case as the diagnosis was
known only after HXP report and better survival rates of
adjuvant radiotherapy in stage 1, radiation recommended.
Q. What is to be
advised for a case of BOH if she is positive for IgG in the
TORCH 10 test? Is Spiramycin prescribed for her if she is
IgG positive for Toxoplasma? What is to be done if she is
Rubella positive? Please explain.
A. Not at all. IgG is an old infection. Patient is immune.
Don’t do anything. BTW there is NO INDICATION of doing TORCH
in BOH
Q. I have a query on
the one step diagnosis of GDM and the subset (majority) of
clients with gestational glucose intolerance. We usually put
the second subset on diabetic diet and follow up with FBS
and PPBS. My question is, if the test at initial visit (say
8wks) suggests GGI, do I repeat a 75 Gms glucose test at
24-28wks or continue with FBS, PPBS monitoring alone
throughout pregnancy?
A. I feel there is no need to repeat GTT. FBS, PP2BS should
suffice. I am sure you must also be having a joint
consultation with a physician for a medico-legal
requirement. Glycosylated-Hb will give you a fair idea of
glycemic control in last three months. It can be done
accordingly.
Q. One of my antenatal
patients is 20 weeks now. Her husband is found positive for
HBS Ag, when he came for blood donation. She is negative for
HBS Ag. Should I recommend Hb vaccine for her? Please
clarify.
A. Yes indeed
Q. A pt. had bleeding
p/v in 1st trimester (8 wks.). USG showed twin gest. With 1
fetus missed n 1 live. diamniotic.( chronicity not
determined) Cervix short. At 11 wks. cervical stitch
applied. Now she is 24 wks pregnancy with sudden rise in BP
160/100. Albumin 1 + prothrombin time 24 sec. control 24.
C/0 severe headache. Can this be attributed to her 1st
missed twin? What should be the plan of action?
A. This is not likely due to the vanished twin. Plan as any
other severe PIH.
Q. A patient with PCOS
who has conceived following drilling. She is 13 wks pregnant
and is carrying a diamniotic dichorionic twin with one
showing vesicular mole and another sac showing normal
gestation. Presently there is no myometrial invasion. Beta
HCG is elevated but no ovarian masses seen. What to do? I
would like to continue this pregnancy. Kindly give ur
opinion
A. Thanks for asking. This entity is now coined as HMCF (Hydatidiform
mole coexisting with fetus). I would like to reply to you in
a little detail. The natural history of pregnancy affected
by HMCF is still unclear. Complications particularly
malignancy are poorly defined. Although HMCF detected
antenatally is terminated in most cases, optimal management
protocol remains controversial. Some authors recommended
immediate termination of pregnancy when the HMCF has been
diagnosed because HMCF carries a higher risk of severe
maternal complications and post molar trophoblastic disease.
However, others have suggested that, in the presence of a
normal karyotype demonstrated by amniocentesis, stable
clinical course, pregnancy may be continued pending fetal
maturation.
It is important to distinguish between
complete and partial mole when a fetus coexists because
these clinical entities are different with different
perinatal outcomes and complications of pregnancy.
Generally, partial mole is mostly associated with triploid
fetuses that tend to die before the end of the first
trimester and surviving fetuses after mid pregnancy are
rarely encountered. On the other hand the fetus coexisting
with complete mole is usually associated with normal
karyotype and has a chance of survival. It was reported that
before 28 week of gestation, the chances of survival are
minimal and the chance for continuation of pregnancy beyond
this point is 60 %. Of pregnancies which continue beyond the
28th week, a surviving child may be expected in 70% of
pregnancies.
In this present case, risks of possible
fetal malformation and subsequent malignant transformation
of the molar pregnancy have to be explained to parents at
the time of diagnosis. It is prudent that the decision to
allow such a pregnancy to continue should be taken with the
couple. If fetus is chromosomally normal and clinical course
of pregnancy is benign, an expectant management until infant
viability must be considered. At the same time the malignant
potential of disease should be taken in consideration as it
had been reported that HMCF had a more aggressive post
evacuation behavior with a risk of post molar disease higher
than a singleton mole.
It is unclear whether the greater risk
of post molar disease is associated with a more aggressive
behavior of the molar tissue or with delayed delivery.
Recent reports had pointed out that an advancement of
gestational age did not appear to increase the risk of
developing a post molar disease. No reports had demonstrated
that prolonging pregnancy to term would increase the
incidence of invasive mole or choriocarcinoma. Some reports
showed that chemotherapy was ultimately required even when
termination of pregnancy was performed during early
gestation of pregnancy.
It is my opinion that patients with
HMCF may be allowed to continue pregnancy, provided that the
fetal karyotype is normal and maternal complications can be
controlled. However, it is necessary to have detail
counseling for the couples that include complete discussion
of maternal and fetal risk, particularly the possible
requirement of chemotherapy or even hysterectomy. However
the standard textbooks still recommend a termination. In
case of a Medico-legal problem at a later date the judicial
authority relies on the standard text-books. However if any
colleague or some academic platform asks for information
than adequate references can be quoted which are readily
available.
Q. Two Nulliparous
patients had bilateral PCOD. Were put on 3-6moths of tab
Krimson-35 & tab Metformin (1000mg) x OD. Conceived
spontaneously. Were UPT good positive, done after being
overdue by 7 days. Were put on Folic acid, progesterone
supplementation (200mg per vaginally) & continued taking Tab
Metformin. Their TSH was normal. Both of them c/o spotting
after 15 days. USG pelvis (TVS), done by sonologist, showed
non-gravid uterus. Repeat UPT was negative. One of the
patients got a serum beta HCG done to be doubly sure that
there was no extra uterine pregnancy, but they corresponded
to non-pregnant levels. Sir please guide me as to 1) Why was
the UPT was +ve if she was not pregnant (HCG was not given).
2) If she was pregnant then what happened as she had only
slight spotting 3) What should I do if similar patients come
with +ve UPT in future
A. Serial HCG may not be necessary.
Only a single HCG will differentiate between ongoing
pregnancies related positive UPT and a false positive UPT
due to LH rise of PCOS. HCG levels to be labelled as
positive for pregnancy should be more than 5 IU.
Q. This patient
presented with very severe pain now in OPD with such
picture. Married life of 18 days. Both partners second
marriage husband asymptomatic. What cud be the possible
diagnosis? VDRl negative

A. This could be condylomata acuminata
Q. A Primigravida 14
wks preg. She had conceived after 3rd time IVF was
prescribed by her IVF gynecologist to give Inj. Medroxy
Progesterone acetate 150 mg) 1 amp/ weekly. Pt. came & asked
me what to do? He approached me because I m a local
Gynecologist. Sir advise me what to do?
A. That’s a very interesting prescription. Personally I am
not aware of any such prescription however the rationale
behind this seems to be providing early pregnancy support. I
am aware of an article that came in 2009 where
medroxypregesterone acetate was used to pre-treat decidual
cells in some experiments for studying Thrombin and
interleukin-1beta decrease HOX gene expression in human
first trimester decidual cells: implications for pregnancy
loss. However I am not aware of a direct clinical study for
its use in early pregnancy support. It would therefore be
better if you or the patient can directly discuss the
rationale with the infertility specialist.
Q. I want you to
clarify difficulties in prescribing Calcium. How much is the
supplementary dose of calcium after menopause in
non-symptomatic patient and for how many days.-Please guide
also about Vit. D and added salts of tracer elements. Is
there any problem- such as atherosclerosis-- stroke, IHD
etc.?
A. The National Osteoporosis Foundation
recommends that women under age 50 get 1,000 mg of calcium
per day and women over age 50 consume 1,200 mg of calcium
per day. This is more than the average 50- to 65-year-old
woman consumes in her diet — usually about 500 mg/day or
less. When trying to meet the daily requirement, remember
that it’s the elemental calcium that counts -- and no
supplement is 100% elemental calcium. Read the labels
carefully. For example, calcium carbonate contains 40%
elemental calcium. That means 1,250 mg of calcium carbonate
provides 500 mg of elemental calcium (1,250 mg x 40%). S0
1500 mg calcium carbonate should be adequate
supplementation. (500 mg tds)
For women under age 50, a daily intake
of 400-800 IU of vitamin D is recommended. For women over
50, 800-1,000 IU of vitamin D is recommended, either through
15 minutes of sun exposure daily (without a sunscreen),
diet, or supplementation.
Q. Pt in 2nd trimester
was given anti rabies vaccine for dog bite, should she
continue s pregnancy?
A. Yes it is safe to continue the
pregnancy
Q. I have query my
patient had genital herpes when she was 8week pregnant now
at four and half months pregnancy her torch report is as
follows. Please give your opinion
A. I would like to stress and re-stress
that there is NO INDICATION of doing TORCH testing in any
case in obstetrics. You can therefore stop doing this test
with full confidence.
Q. A primi underwent
LSCS for PIH 150/110.BP kept rising postoperatively 170/120.
Patient had headache. What is the drug of choice to reduce
BP.? Can MGSO4 be given for imminent symptoms, at what dose?
Kindly advice on proper line of management
A. Yes indeed Magsulf is the drug of
choice for preventing the fit. However as she has not yet
thrown a convulsion, needless to say you should give the
dose as 5 gms intramuscular 6 hourly for 24 hours and avoid
the loading dose of 14 grams. Also, if you are following any
other regime than there too no need of giving the loading
dose.
As regards immediate control of BP, IV Hydralazine is the
best. If however you are not familiar with it or have
availability issues then sublingual Nifedipine 5 mgs is the
drug of choice immediate postpartum. Labetalol is safe in
pregnancy.
Q. Can Mirena be
inserted in female 54 years old on oral hypoglycemic agents
not attained menopause yet. Ultrasound shows submucosal
fibroid of 1.4cm. Histopathology report shows disordered
proliferative growth with no evidence of malignancy.
A. To your query on oral hypoglycemic
agents: Levonorgestrel may affect glucose tolerance, and the
blood glucose concentration should be monitored in diabetic
users of Mirena.
As regards your query on submucosal fibroid: Mirena has also
been shown to be effective in managing symptoms of other
gynecological conditions, such as fibroids, endometriosis,
adenomyosis, endometrial hyperplasia and premenstrual
syndrome. However, Mirena is presently not licensed in USA
to be used as a treatment for these conditions.
Q. You mention testing
for Hyperhemocystenemia: How do you go about it? Isn't
treating this perhaps a little easier than trying to
diagnose (And do you test for any other inherited
thrombophilia?) Also, with the APLA, you mention only ACA.
Any reason to exclude Lupus Anticoagulant?
A. Point regarding hyperhemocystenemia,
yes in clinical practice we too treat it without getting the
levels done and all that is required to treat is 5 mgs of
folic acid. But in this lecture there were post-graduate
students also who needed to be told to complete their list
in exams when enlisting investigations.
As regards LAC once you get ACA done it
is not terribly important to get LAC done. I have given
extensive explanation for this in both my books.
As regards the template of tests for
inherited thrombophilia, no we do not get this investigated
as again this is more academic. Treatment still remains the
same. Therefore most critical is the history and USG of
previous pregnancies.
Q. One subject of 12
weeks pregnancy had bleeding (blackish), USG: live fetus, cx
length normal. She is bleeding minimal to moderate amount.
Previous obst H/O similar bleeding pattern, was given
aspirin, parenteral progesterone, but eventually she started
bleeding profusely in 6th month of preg. And we had to
terminate d preg. Her first antenatal scan also revealed
bicornuate uterus with hemorrhage in 1 horn of uterus.
Present scan shows significant retroplacental hemorrhage.
Patient has no pain but bleeding persists.
A. In my opinion it is immunology at
play in this subject of yours. I feel till that time as the
fetus is thriving please do not worry. But guard the patient
about the prognosis. Also please continue aspirin (and
heparin) if started. I also suggest you take a good opinion
of a sonologist to rule out a low-lying placenta.
Q. I am delivering a
debate on clomiphene verses en-clomiphene. Can you give me
some guidelines?
A. The en form is more active as we
know. But the inactive form can increase reproductive
toxicity of clomiphene. So it has been suggested to keep a
break of one month after using clomiphene. This is because
the relatively inactive form of clomiphene is said to be in
circulation as it is poorly metabolized by liver. As a
result of this it tends to produce reproductive toxicity.
However the active en form is expected not to create this
problem. As a result it is theoretically forwarded as a
better form of clomiphene. However the literature is still
not very clear on this as regards the evidence support.
Q. A G3P2 with
previous two LSCS at 18-19 wks, on a second trimester USG
has a spinabifida with meningocoele with ventriculomegaly.
She wants a second trimester abortion for the same. What are
the options in view of the previous two LSCS?
A. No problem. Handle it as any other
II trimester termination
Q. I had a query
regarding one of my patients and wanted your opinion
regarding the same. I have one patient who is around 30
yrs., a doctor by profession has a history of recurrent
miscarriage. She is G4P1L1A3. 1 FTND a healthy baby boy
about 5 yrs. 2nd blighted ovum- D&C done. 3rd blighted ovum
4th blighted ovum - D&C done. Her investigations showed CBC,
RBS, TSH, TORCH, Homocysteine, - all this normal. USG
pelvis- normal. VIT D levels- slightly on lower side and
started on cholicalceferol sachet weekly. Karyotyping -
patient – normal. Husband balanced translocation of
chromosome 1,4. Reports attached herewith. Could you suggest
what is the best line of treatment for her so as to have a
good outcome of pregnancy? Sir I am here in Saudi Arabia and
the patient who is also practicing in Saudi Arabia would
like to go to India if any interventional treatment needed.
A. Blighted ova are usually a sign of
gem cell defect. Parental karyotyping may not yield any
result as these are more likely to be normal. In such cases
you have to wait for a spontaneous resolution. Just as their
first child is normal and all well the next can be so.
However early pregnancy support can help albeit marginally,
Q. I am having a
patient with 6-8 cms huge anterior vaginal wall cyst. Please
guide.
A. You need to rule out two points:
1. Is this part of a larger para-ovarian cyst which is seen
below? Ultrasound abdomen pelvis will rule it out
2. Is it connected in any way to the bladder like a
diverticulum? Urinary complains and gentle bladder sounding
will rule it out.
Once this is done all that is required is vaginal excision
Q. Should primi with
floating head not given a trial for normal labor. R there
studies as to know the percentages?
A. Yes. One can give trial if the
pelvis is adequate. All primis with floating head may not
require a CS. I am not sure of percentages as statistics
from published data show a wide variation.
Q. Does galactorrhea
in otherwise normal pregnancy pose any problem to the fetus
at term? Is there any indication for elective LSCS? What are
the precautions to be taken?
A. Galactorrhea in pregnancy is normal.
It is the preparations being made by mother- nature for the
arriving new-born. No precautions are needed for a normal
physiological event. It has no bearing on the route of
delivery.
Q. In India -what ages
in our family ladies should take HPV vaccine? 35 yrs. old
ok? At what age to start-if at all?
A. It is not the age....it is before
first intercourse. As per Indian culture first intercourse
occurs usually after marriage so it is thus advised - before
marriage. Ideally as a broad policy it is advised to young
adolescents who by-and-large are sexually not expected to be
active in India.
Q. I have a subject 43
years old and using an IUCD for the last 16 years. She is
gravida two and on inspection of cervix shows hypertrophy
and gross erosion. A pap reveals an inflammatory smear. Lot
of thick discharge, can she change and continue or it should
be discontinued. How long can one use IUCD?
A. Please treat the infection
energetically and completely. Please keep her on a follow-up
of pap as is recommended at and after this age. There is no
limit as such as to how long can one use IUD. It depends on
the subject herself. But infections can be a bug-bear.
Q. I wonder if you can
help me in managing a 5th gr, 1st preg conceived and
progressed to full term, after those 3 losses between 6 and
8 weeks. All reports, including chromosome analysis of POC
and that of both parents are normal. Last preg at 6 weeks we
even started LMWH daily and aspirin, but could not continue.
This time its 6 weeks and all well in US but had one spot
once. Any suggestions? Patient is on folic acid with Vit
B12, aspirin 50mg and Progesterone. She is reluctant to take
daily LMWH, which is anyways not ethically indicated.
A. I agree. A refractory one on hand! 6
weeks losses are usually not-immunological and so Heparin
and even aspirin are best empirical. I am sure you must have
ruled out thyroid and insulin resistance.
In these subjects you have to wait for a spontaneous
resolution continuing the current treatment as chances of
spontaneous resolution is more than 70%. Coming to spotting
of-course you must have ruled out a low lying placenta. So
now the explanation to this: it is just an interaction
between the protective cytokines and destructive cytokines.
They fight at the level of vascular channels and so result
in spotting. If the protective ones win, the bleeding will
stop. If not the bleeding will continue for some time till
whatever be the end-point. So, if the baby is thriving and
there is no fetal bradycardia prognosis is unaffected by
bleeding, irrespective of the amount of bleeding. You are
just a witness in the war and can’t do anything more except
weekly monitoring.
Q. I am 29 years of
age and my wife is same age also. She has blocked fallopian
tubes at the cornual ends and we were wondering if you could
outline and tell us of any treatment for this and the
potential costing. We have been married 10 years and have
one son who will be 9 years old in April. My sperm count is
normal and all other tests for my wife have proved normal
just the tubes are blocked.
A. Thanks for asking. In my opinion ART
(Commonly known as Test-tube baby) will be best for her. I
am not into ART so will not be able to tell you about the
costing involved.
Q. My wife has 2 month
amenorrhea. USG 10 days before shows a 6.3 week with 96
heartbeats. After 10 days on today USG shows 6.3 weeks only
with 66 heartbeats with regular g-sac and regular y-sac
without complain of spotting PV. Now what treatment I do to
save this pregnancy? I know chances of miscarriage are high
but still what treatment? She is on tab. aspirin 50mg
Spiramycin, Progesterone and HCG.
A. Thanks for asking. My full feelings
are with both of you. As you have rightly said bradycardia
is not a good prognosis. Among all the treatment she is on
Spiramycin is most irrational and should be immediately
discontinued. However beyond this you have very little that
you can do. Continue weekly monitoring. If the conceptus is
inherently not sick or is able to protect itself from the
rejection process it would survive on its own. So for you
and me at this stage regular monitoring is the most we can
do. Rest all other is supportive.
Q. It might be weird
of me to write to you, but I have found your write-up about
Dysfunctional Uterine Bleeding and it was very interesting
for me. I am located in Poland and my fiancé has a
gynecological problem that is baffling doctors around here
and no one was able to provide a conclusive diagnosis.
Therefore I am looking for sources of knowledge outside.
A. Thank you very much for asking. It
seems your fiancée may need a thorough clinical and
endoscopic workup. I suggest you to contact good doctors at
some advanced center there itself. It should solve the
problem.
Q. About a month ago I
had posted a query about a woman with recurrent pregnancy
loss. The recent developments are that she has high TPO ab
level, CT is negative. She has been put on thyroxin.
Presently she is 17 weeks gestation. As of now there is no
e/o cervical incompetence. I would like to know whether to
go ahead with prophylactic cercalage. Is there need for
quadruple screen?
A. I feel Thyroid peroxidase test does
not help much. We clinicians are giving over importance to
Thyroid in recurrent pregnancy loss.
As regards encerclage I feel it will
help only if these were live disasters lest it won’t.
However if you feel prophylactic encerclage will give you a
peace of mind then there are some schools of thought who
believe that the disadvantages of such encerclage is so less
that they can be taken even if not fully indicated. In my
clinical practice over a period of years cervical encerclage
have reduced to a meager 20% from what I was doing before
twenty years.
Q. Pt with 10 wks live
preg with partial mole (increased vascularity and a mass
adjusted to sac on USG). Surprisingly her β-HCG is only
10000! What should be the next step? Can the diagnosis be
wrong or her β-HCG report is wrong? Is there a role of
methotrexate prior to suction evacuation?
A. The β-HCG report may not be wrong.
In case of a partial mole, the level of β-HCG is often
within the wide range associated with normal pregnancy and
the symptoms are usually less pronounced. For these reasons
the diagnosis of a partial mole is often missed clinically
and made from subsequent histologic assessment of the
abortive material.
The outcome of a partial hydatidiform
mole after uterine evacuation is almost always benign.
Persistent disease occurs in 1.2% to 4% of cases; metastasis
occurs only in 0.1% of cases. Therefore there is no reason
to give methotrexate.
Q. If you remember
when my daughter had her first missed abortion & her CMV IgM
was + & avidity was high I had asked your advice about Tt
but your suggestion was not to give any medication. I
followed your advice. This was on 1-6-2013 and her LMP is
now 22/10/13 & pregnancy test is positive.
For the last 3 months I have kept her on combination of
L-methyl folate, Pyridoxine and Methylcobalamine. She is
still taking the same. What is your opinion regarding Bed
rest. She is office going 5 days a week. No strenuous work
but continuous sitting is needed. Her husband drives her to
office. Role of Aspirin, Should I give her? Role of NMP and
HCG injection, If so in what dose?
A. As per my opinion in a subject with
one anecdotal miscarriage all that is required is a 5 mgs of
folic acid daily. This is not a case to start any extra
treatment. However in recurrent miscarriages one may give
treatment as per the cause.
I would appreciate if you can email me
her current USG report so that I can know exactly what is
happening and be of best use to you.
Hormones like HCG and progesterone in
this case are empirical. If you are very tense you may give
for your peace and satisfaction. How much are they of
benefit is difficult to say. Aspirin likewise is also not
indicated in this subject nor is Heparin.
Q. I wanted to know
what is the rational of giving heparin injection in 1st
trimester abortions and in what dose should it be
administered s/c. Doctors are giving it daily s/c for 3
months continuously in 1st trimester abortions,
A. I am indeed thankful to you for
asking this query. If they are late first trimester missed
abortions then these could be immunological. In that case
heparin has a role. For how long and all is in itself a full
lecture but only for three months needs colour Doppler
report for backup. In some of these cases where at 12 weeks
there is no diastolic notch and PI is < 1.7 I do stop
heparin. So if that is being followed then the practitioners
are justified.
Q. My query is can
tranexamic acid be used in cases of threatened miscarriage
and antepartum hemorrhage? I have encountered a couple of
patients for whom this was used to stop the bleeding for
threatened miscarriage. Is there any evidence for its use??
A. Thanks for asking. No there is no
evidence of efficacy of tranexamic acid in threatened
miscarriage. In fact if you go into the etiopathology of
these two conditions you too will be convinced of the fact
that there can be no rational for its use too. However I am
not discounting the results that you have achieved. This
could be more coincidental.
Q. If Tuberculin test
positive and patient is labelled at latent TB also has moth
eaten appearance of uterine cavity in HSG , is a case of
Primary sterility 4yrs. Our Government policy says not to
treat. Whereas every other foreign website mentions latent
tuberculosis as seen by Tuberculin test if positive should
be treated by the regime advised on these sites for t/t of
latent TB. What is your opinion?
A. Though the appearance described by
you is rare to find and in combination with tuberculin test
nearly clinches the diagnosis. But this too is
circumstantial. If your patient load is very high and unable
to wait for the confirmatory evidence one can start
treating. But still I would consider this as by and large
empirical
Q. is there a real
benefit of keeping methotrexate in placenta accreta? If so
what is the dosage schedule. What is the best time to do
hysterectomy in placenta accreta: At the time of LSCS or
after waiting for some time thinking in a view to reduce its
vascularity?
A. The folate antagonist methotrexate
has been proposed as an adjunctive treatment for placenta
accreta. Some have opined that after delivery, the
trophoblasts are no longer dividing, thereby rendering
methotrexate ineffective. Small studies have reported mixed
results. Although uterine conservation was achieved in one
study, most of the patients subsequently developed
postpartum hemorrhage that required hysterectomy. Other
reports documented failure of treatment with methotrexate.
Thus, there are no convincing data for the use of
methotrexate for postpartum management of placenta accreta.
Generally, the recommended management
of suspected placenta accreta is planned preterm cesarean
hysterectomy with the placenta left in situ because removal
of the placenta is associated with significant hemorrhagic
morbidity. However, this approach might not be considered
first-line treatment for women who have a strong desire for
future fertility. Therefore, surgical management of placenta
accreta may be individualized.
There are reports of an alternative
approach to the management of placenta accreta that includes
ligating the cord close to the fetal surface, removing the
cord, and leaving the placenta in situ, potentially with
partial placental resection to minimize its size. However,
this approach should be considered only when the patient has
a strong desire for future fertility as well as hemodynamic
stability, normal coagulation status, and is willing to
accept the risks involved in this conservative approach. The
patient should be counseled that the outcome of this
approach is unpredictable and that there is an increased
risk of significant complications as well as the need for
later hysterectomy. Reported cases of subsequent successful
pregnancy in patients treated with this approach are rare.
This approach should be abandoned and hysterectomy performed
if excessive bleeding is noted.
Q. My question is
about role of Paternal Lymphocyte Therapy. What is its role
in treatment of RPL And also the evidence (or lack of)
behind it.
A. Right from first I said nearly two
decades ago and I was proved right that paternal Leukocyte
Antigen therapy was not only irrational but downright
dangerous. Please don't use
Q. I have been using
atorvastatin 20mg per day in all degrees of endometriosis
with 70% relief in dysmenorrhea and infertility i.e.70% %
patients were relieved. I started using after I read the
good results on mouse trials. How should we carry this
forward?
A. What exactly is your end-point to be
achieved? Do you want to publish your data? Do you want to
share your data? Do you want the world to know about your
work? All of these or none of these? My answer will depend
on your reply. You can start documenting your results right
away statistically as well as through visuals as the
original paper that you have sent me have done. The
direction can be given as per your desire what you want to
do with the data.
Q. 27yr old lady
presented with 6wks pregnancy. H/o 3 missed abortions
between 6to12wks. No live issues. Investigations show:
B group: A+
TSH: normal
PROLACTIN: normal RBS normal
TORCH: normal
VDRL: normal
LAC: normal
ACA: normal
APA: normal
She is very anxious and doesn’t want to miss this pregnancy.
May I start LMWH or STANDARD HEPARIN? At what dose? Kindly
guide me.
A. Heparin LMWH has no advantage over regular Heparin except
the latter being much cheaper. The dose is 5000 IU of
heparin daily from diagnosis of pregnancy subcutaneously
till 36 weeks.
Q. I did LSCS of primi
with normal antenatal history on 4th Nov she was 2 days
postdated and developed spontaneous labour pains .I admitted
her and watched for POL. HER Hb and blood sugar at the
admission was normal, cx was not favorable, FHS was
150/minute regular. After 4 hours of good uterine
contractions cx findings was almost same and FHS became
irregular. I talked to the relatives and advised them for
LSCS after half an hour they gave consent add we went for
LSCS with qualified team of surgeon, anesthetist,
pediatrician and gynecologist under SA. Everything was well
till baby came out, as soon as baby delivered she went into
cardiac arrest, immediately we gave CPR and she was
intubated and IPPR was given her heart came back but
respiration was gasping so we talked to the relatives and
arranged for shifting to tertiary care center which is
hardly 300 meters away from my center. As soon as I closed
the abdomen ambulance came. I accompanied the patient in
ambulance with ambu bag in 5-10 min after surgery she was on
ventilator. I remained there for 3-4 hours and regularly
visited 3-4 times a day and whenever they called, phoned to
ICU and consultants every 2-3 hours. She had normal echo but
x ray chest after 4 hours showed pulmonary edema which
cleared after 2 days but she developed hypoxic brain injury
remained unconscious on tracheostomy. They took away the
patient and kept her at home after that I do not know the
progress of patient now they complained in state medical
council and I have to present in front of council on 12th
July now I want your help and expert advice as what could be
the possible reason of cardiac arrest.
A. Thanks for asking.
In this case what will be critical will
be your records.
It would be excellent if your records
show that there was irregularity in FHS and the relatives
took time in consenting for the LSCS.
I feel if your records should show a
noting every time you visited the NICU or talked with the
doctor on duty telephonically. This will be important as it
will show that you did not leave the baby just like that.
Further to this if you have an Fetal
CTG or Colour Doppler record that would further fortify your
case.
I would like to bring to your kind
notice that if you do not have these notings or recordings
please do not try to insert anything now or delete anything.
If a copy has already been given to the patient or the
Council of your records please do not make any changes. If
not you can attach a separate paper which gives the details
of your visit to the NICU and phone calls made there. If
your records are already submitted you can prepare a
separate paper and carry it with you to the council and
request them to take a cognizance. Even the NICU doctor can
be requested to corroborate your contention.
Now the most important point comes with
text-book references. They will be considered most valid.
You require finding relevant references from standard
text-books showing that such eventualities can occur and
these are known complications. FHS irregularity and
asphyxiated baby is what you will have to work on. Also
delay in giving consent and its effects on an asphyxiated
baby is also to be shown on reference. Best would be text
book references. If not, you can Google this or get it
through www.nlm.nih.gov (PubMed). This you will have to do
on your own as you only now the details of the case
thread-bare. Once fortified with all these documents I think
you can face the inquiry without difficulty.
Now on a side matter but still very
important. Please do not be afraid. Fear is our biggest
bug-bear. Face the council and patients boldly. At the same
time please also accept that in a democracy they have a
right to complaint and we have a right to reply. This is
important as it will break you anger and bitterness towards
the patients and relatives and so can handle the inquiry
more dispassionately and objectively.
Q. if a patient has
taken I-pill (morning after pill: levenogesterol75) and
conceived in same cycle. Should she continue d pregnancy?
What are the chances of effect to fetus?
A. Theoretically there is a risk of
virilization of the female fetus with progesterone. But the
androgenic activity of this compound is very feeble. In
clinical practice too there is no adverse effects seen. i
therefore in my personal opinion feel that there is no need
to panic and pregnancy should be allowed to continue |